@p @Terry @Dave @fluffy Firestone et al. (2000): Differentiation of Homicidal Child Molesters, Nonhomicidal Child Molesters, and Nonoffenders by Phallometry
https://ajp.psychiatryonline.org/doi/10.1176/appi.ajp.157.11.1847?url_ver=Z39.88-2003&rfr_id=ori:rid:crossref.org&rfr_dat=cr_pub%20%200pubmed#t1
Two phallometric indexes were used: the pedophile index and the pedophile assault index. The pedophile index was computed by dividing the subject’s highest response to an aural description of sex with a “consenting” child by his highest response to description of sex with a consenting adult.
[Table 1]
Pedophile index Non offenders >= 1.0 %
27.7
Method
Participants
The comparison group was recruited through an advertisement and paid a $50 honorarium. The men in the comparison group had no criminal record or serious psychiatric or medical history, and all reported that they had never committed a sexual offense.
Like I said:
> If you explain where you got the "27.7%" and what that figure actually means. (Hint: it is not a 27.7% rate of pedophilia, you idiot.)
You haven't, because you can't, because you don't know what the number means. The scores were way higher for pedophiles, the paper concludes that this is a reasonable predictor for child molestation. Do you know what the p value means? Χ²? Anything about statistics? What's that score measuring anyway?
So the "smug anime face" bit is right in your debate script, which—again—I have read. This is what to do when you're out of your depth. YHL. HAND.